at verse 18 a little closer. Christ was put to death in the body but made alive by the Spirit. In Greek this is a contrasting clause. On the one hand—he died. On the other hand—he was made alive. Literally, “On the one hand put to death in the flesh, on the other hand made alive in the spirit. At which time . . .” It is a post resurrection that is in view.
To whom did Jesus preach? (3:19)
Again there are three basic views.
1. The first view holds that Noah preached to men, in the spirit of Christ, who because they were disobedient, are now in prison waiting the resurrection.
2. The second view (most popular) is that during the time in the tomb, Jesus went and preached to “the souls of men” who were disobedient in the Old Testament, giving them the opportunity to hear the gospel.
3. Again, I’ve got to disagree with both these views. Both these views assume the word “spirit” here refers to the spirit of men. When the word “spirit” is used in Scripture, it is seldom used of men unless it is qualified by the phrase “the spirit of man.” The word “soul” is usually used. Not only that, but again in this passage we find a contrast between verse 19, “the spirits who were disobedient, in prison” and that of verse 22, “those angels, authorities and powers who are in submission to him.” These are not the spirits of men, but fallen angels and demonic forces that oppose Christ.
Which brings us to a third, and probably the most important question.
What did Jesus preach?
This is the easiest question to answer. But even here we have two views.
1. The first view (most popular) holds that Christ preached salvation.
2. But the word here translated “preach” is not euangelion, to preach the gospel. It is actually the word karrusso which means to “proclaim” or “announce.” The message proclaimed is the message of victory and triumph—Jesus is alive and well. He has demonstrated victory, power over death. He has triumphed and is proclaiming that victory with finality. The battle has been fought; the victory has been secured.
And notice our text again. These difficult portions are sandwiched between a section that is easily understood. “For Christ died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body, but made alive by the Spirit . . . (he) has gone into heaven and is at God’s right hand—with angels, authorities and powers in submission to him.”
Christ died . . . once for all. The righteous for the unrighteous. To bring you to God. He was put to death . . . but is now alive. Everything is in submission to him. What hope this would have brought to first century Christians, who at times thought they were losing the battle. It’s the message of hope, and life, and victory; and this victory was announced by Christ at his resurrection to all spiritual forces who opposed him. God dealt with sin in the past by destroying people with the flood, but in these times, he dealt sin a death blow through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. The message being proclaimed here is victory over death, victory over sin, and victory over our spiritual enemies.
Which brings us to the last question we need to answer.
What does the illustration of baptism mean? (3:21)
Again there are two words I’d like to point out to you.
The word “symbolizes” is the word anti-topos. It’s a figure, an example, a comparison. And Peter makes sure we know a couple of things about this example. He tells us what baptism is not. It is not a magical or mystical rite. There is no power in the water to save. It’s not removal of dirt from the flesh (you can take a bath at home). It’s not holy water.
But then he tells us what it is: it’s a pledge (we’ll come back to that word in a minute) and he tells us where the power is found. “It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.” That’s the purpose of this passage—to highlight what Jesus has done, and how he has shown his ultimate victory. Jesus Christ is risen. In Jesus there is victory.
But let’s look at that word “pledge” (eperōtēma) a little more closely. By the way, it’s the only time this word is used in Scripture. It’s actually taken from the word “question.” Its literal meaning is to answer a question. “To give an answer.” I picture this as God asking you this simple question: “Do you really want to be a follower of mine?” or Jesus asking, “Are you really willing to make me your Lord?” In order for Jesus to be our Savior, he must first be our Lord. Are you willing to answer God in the affirmative, “Yes, I want to follow you completely”!
Later, in the first and second century, the word was used in legal contracts. It was like signing your name on the dotted line. It was a promise, a pledge, a signature that you would live by the contract. Baptism is this: count me in. I promise, I pledge, I am willing to give you my answer.
Notice: it’s not the payment for sin. That was made by Jesus. It’s not the gift offered to us freely—that’s grace. But it is the pledge, and the acceptance of the offer.
Peter is saying to them, “Don’t you know that there is victory in Christ? And don’t you want to accept what he has done for you and pledge your life to him?” You see, in our eagerness to find answers to these difficult questions, we might miss the purpose of this passage.
Read this passage one more time without the controversy, and see clearly the picture that is being painted. The purpose of this passage is simply this: Jesus died once for all to bring you to God. You are saved by the resurrection of Jesus Christ. He has triumphed and gone into heaven. He is now seated at God’s right hand. Everything is in submission to him. Jesus died once for all, to bring you to God . . . you are saved by the resurrection of Jesus Christ who has gone into heaven and is at God’s right hand. Jesus is in control. Is he in control of you?
Email “Messages”
Inbox [14/70]
To: Dr. Crane [eaglechristianchurch.com]
Subject: Are the Genealogies of Jesus Contradictory?
---Original Message---
In reading the genealogies of Jesus in Matthew 1 and Luke 3, they appear to be contradictory. Is there something here that I don’t understand?
Reply:
This is a question that has long perplexed readers of the New Testament. At first glance, it does appear that there is a contradiction because Matthew 1:16 indicates that Jacob is Joseph’s father, while Luke 3:23 mentions the name of Heli. The usual practice of a Jewish genealogy is to give the name of the father, grandfather, great-grandfather, and so on (either in an ascending or descending order). When comparing the two, one quickly realizes that the names of the two genealogies are not the same.
The best way to understand this is by realizing that while Joseph was the “legal” father of Jesus, he was not the “actual” father of Jesus (cf. the virgin birth, Matthew 1:20). Matthew traces the line through Joseph’s father (Jacob), while Luke traces the line of Jesus through Joseph’s father-in-law—the father of Mary (Heli).
Take a close look at Luke’s account, and you will see an interesting phrase that you might have previously missed. “He [Jesus] was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph” (Luke 3:23). In so doing, Luke reminds us of what he has already told us in chapter 1—that Jesus is not the physical son of Joseph, but only of Mary. Joseph is clearly portrayed not as the literal father, but as the supposed father. Luke then proceeds to give us the genealogy of Jesus through Mary’s family line.
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